Advanced book on Mathematics Olympiad

(ff) #1
Algebra 377

and each of these is just the AM–GM inequality.
(Greek Team Selection Test for the Junior Balkan Mathematical Olympiad, 2005)


128.Denote the positive number 1−(a 1 +a 2 +···+an)byan+ 1. The inequality from
the statement becomes the more symmetric


a 1 a 2 ···anan+ 1
( 1 −a 1 )( 1 −a 2 )···( 1 −an)( 1 −an+ 1 )


1

nn+^1

.

But from the AM–GM inequality,


1 −a 1 =a 2 +a 3 +···+an+ 1 ≥nn


a 2 a 3 ···an+ 1 ,
1 −a 2 =a 1 +a 3 +···+an+ 1 ≥nn


a 1 a 3 ···an+ 1 ,
···
1 −an+ 1 =a 1 +a 2 +···+an≥nn


a 1 a 2 ···an.

Multiplying thesen+1 inequalities yields


( 1 −a 1 )( 1 −a 2 )···( 1 −an+ 1 )≥nn+^1 a 1 a 2 ···an,

and the conclusion follows.
(short list of the 43rd International Mathematical Olympiad, 2002)


129.Trick number 1: Use the fact that


1 =
n− 1 +xj
n− 1 +xj

=(n− 1 )

1

n− 1 +xj

+

xj
n− 1 +xj

,j= 1 , 2 ,...,n,

to transform the inequality into


x 1
n− 1 +x 1

+

x 2
n− 1 +x 2

+···+

xn
n− 1 +xn

≥ 1.

Trick number 2: Break this into theninequalities


xj
n− 1 +xj


x
1 −^1 n
j
x
1 −^1 n
1 +x

1 −^1 n
2 +···+x

1 −^1 n
n

,j= 1 , 2 ,...,n.

We are left withnsomewhat simpler inequalities, which can be rewritten as


x
1 −^1 n
1 +x

1 −^1 n
2 +x

1 −^1 n
j− 1 +x

1 −^1 n
j+ 1 +···+x

1 −^1 n
n ≥(n−^1 )x

−^1 n
j.

Trick number 3: Use the AM–GM inequality

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