Real Analysis 493a 0 +a 1 z+a 2 z^2 +···+anzn+···
=(a 0 −a 1 )+(a 1 −a 2 )( 1 +z)+···+(an−an+ 1 )( 1 +z+···+zn)+···.Assume that this is equal to zero. Multiplying by 1−z, we obtain
(a 0 −a 1 )( 1 −z)+(a 1 −a 2 )( 1 −z^2 )+···+(an−an+ 1 )( 1 −zn+^1 )+··· = 0.Define the sequencebn=an−an+ 1 ,n≥0. It is positive and∑
nbn=a^0. Because
|z|<1, the series∑
nbnz
nconverges absolutely. This allows us in the above inequality
to split the left-hand side into two series and move one to the right to obtainb 0 +b 1 +···+bn+··· =b 0 z+b 1 z^2 +···+bnzn+^1 +···.Applying the triangle inequality to the expression on the right gives
|b 0 z+b 1 z^2 +···+bnzn+^1 |≤b 0 |z|+b 1 |z^2 |+···+bn|zn|+···
<b 0 +b 1 +···+bn+···,which implies that equality cannot hold. We conclude that the sum of the series is not
equal to zero.
362.If such a sequence exists, then the numbers
1
p 0 p 1−
1
p 0 p 1 p 2+
1
p 0 p 1 p 2 p 3−··· and1
p 0 p 1 p 2−
1
p 0 p 1 p 2 p 3+···
should both be positive. It follows that0 <
1
p 0
−w=1
p 0 p 1−
1
p 0 p 1 p 2+
1
p 0 p 1 p 2 p 3−···<
1
p 0 p 1<
1
p 0 (p 0 + 1 ).
Hencep 0 has to be the unique integer with the property that
1
p 0 + 1<w<1
p 0.
This integer satisfies the double inequalityp 0 <1
w
<p 0 + 1 ,which is equivalent to 0< 1 −p 0 w<w.
Letw 1 = 1 −p 0 w. Thenw=1
p 0−
w 1
p 0