500 Real Analysis
374.First solution: LetSn=
∑n
k= 0 (−^1 )
k(n−k)!(n+k)!.Reordering the terms of the
sum, we have
Sn=(− 1 )n
∑n
k= 0
(− 1 )kk!( 2 n−k)!
=(− 1 )n
1
2
(
(− 1 )nn!n!+
∑^2 n
k= 0
(− 1 )kk!( 2 n−k)!
)
=
(n!)^2
2
+(− 1 )n
Tn
2
,
whereTn=
∑ 2 n
k= 0 (−^1 )
kk!( 2 n−k)!. We now focus on the sumTn. Observe that
Tn
( 2 n)!
=
∑^2 n
k= 0
(− 1 )k
( 2 n
k
)
and
1
( 2 n
k
)=
2 n+ 1
2 (n+ 1 )
[
1
( 2 n+ 1
k
)+
1
( 2 n+ 1
k+ 1
)
]
.
Hence
Tn
( 2 n)!
=
2 n+ 1
2 (n+ 1 )
[
1
( 2 n+ 1
0
)+
1
( 2 n+ 1
1
)−
1
( 2 n+ 1
1
)−
1
( 2 n+ 1
2
)+···+
1
( 2 n+ 1
2 n
)+
1
( 2 n+ 1
2 n+ 1
)
]
.
This sum telescopes to
2 n+ 1
2 (n+ 1 )
[
1
( 2 n+ 1
0
)+
1
( 2 n+ 1
2 n+ 1
)
]
=
2 n+ 1
n+ 1
.
ThusTn=(^2 nn++ 11 )!, and therefore
Sn=
(n!)^2
2
+(− 1 )n
( 2 n+ 1 )!
2 (n+ 1 )
.
Second solution: Multiply thekth term inSnby(n−k+ 1 )+(n+k+ 1 )and divide by
2 (n+ 1 )to obtain
Sn=
1
2 (n+ 1 )
∑n
k= 0
[
(− 1 )k(n−k+ 1 )!(n+k)!+(− 1 )k(n−k)!(n+k+ 1 )!