Solutions 287
You will be left with an arbitrage profit of
131 −120e
(^1012) ×12%
+1e
124 ×12%
+2e
121 ×12%∼
= 1. 44
dollars.
6.4No arbitrage profit can be realised in these circumstances. Though the theoret-
ical no-arbitrage forward price is about $87.83, the first strategy in the proof
of Proposition 6.2 brings a loss of 89−83e10%+2e^0.^5 ×7%∼=− 0 .66 dollars and
the second one results in a loss of−89 + 83e7%−2e^0.^5 ×10%∼=− 2 .08 dollars.
6.5The euro plays the role of the underlying asset with dividend yield 3%. Hence
the forward price (the exchange rate) is
F(0, 1 /2) = 0.9834e^0 .5(4%−3%)∼= 0. 9883
euros to a dollar.
6.6At timet
- borrow and pay (or receive and invest, if negative) the amountV(t)to
acquire a short forward contract with forward priceF(0,T) and delivery
dateT, - initiate a new long forward contact with forward priceF(t, T)atnocost.
Then at timeT - close out both forward contracts receiving (or paying, if negative) the
amountsS(T)−F(0,T)andS(T)−F(t, T), respectively; - collectV(t)er(T−t)from the risk-free investment, with interest.
The final balanceV(t)er(T−t)−[F(t, T)−F(0,T)]>0 will be your arbitrage
profit.
6.7By (6.3) the initial forward price isF(0,1)∼= 45 .72 dollars. This takes into
account the dividend paid at time 1/2.
a) IfS(9/12) = 49 dollars, thenF(9/ 12 ,1)∼= 49 .74 dollars by (6.2). It
follows by (6.8) thatV(9/12)∼= 3 .96 dollars.
b) IfS(9/12) = 51 dollars, thenF(9/12)∼= 51 .77 dollars andV(9/12)∼=
5 .96 dollars.
6.8Lett=1/ 365 ,T=1/ 4 .We apply the formula (6.11) to get
f(t, T)−f(0,T)=S(t)er(T−t)+S(0)erT=0
ifS(t)=S(0)ert,that is, if the stock grows at the risk-free rate.
6.9Sincef(t, T)=S(t)er(T−t),the random variablesS(t)andf(t, T) are perfectly
correlated withρS(t)f(t,T)=1andσf(t,T)=er(T−t)σS(t).It follows thatN=
e−r(T−t).
6.10Observe that Theorem 6.5 on the equality of futures and forward prices applies
also in the case of an asset with dividends paid continuously. We can, therefore,
use (6.6) to obtain
rdiv=8%− 0.^175 ln^1413 ,,^100500 ∼= 2 .20%.