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15—Fourier Analysis 372

1. Ifx >+athen bothx+aandx−aare positive, which implies that both exponentials vanish rapidly


ask→+i∞. Push the contourC 2 toward this direction and the integrand vanishes exponentially,


making the integral zero.


2. If−a < x <+a, then onlyx+ais positive. The integral of the first term is then zero by exactly


the preceding reasoning, but the other term has an exponential that vanishes ask→ −i∞instead,


implying that you must push the contour down toward−i∞.


=i



C 3

dk


2 π


1

k


eik(x−a)=



C 4

= +i


1

2 π


(−1)2πiRes


k=0

eik(x−a)


k


=−i


1

2 π


. 2 πi= 1


C 3

C 4

The extra(−1)factor comes because the contour is clockwise.


3. In the third domain,x <−a, both exponentials have the forme−ik, requiring you to push the


contour toward−i∞. The integrand now has both exponentials, so it is analytic at zero and there


is zero residue. The integral vanishes and the whole analysis takes you back to the original function,
Eq. (15.6).
Another example of a Fourier transform, one that shows up often in quantum mechanics


f(x) =e−x


(^2) /σ 2


, so g(k) =


∫∞

−∞

dxe−ikxe−x


(^2) /σ 2


∫∞

−∞

dxe−ikx−x


(^2) /σ 2
The trick to doing this integral is to complete the square inside the exponent.


−ikx−x^2 /σ^2 =


− 1

σ^2


[

x^2 +σ^2 ikx−σ^4 k^2 /4 +σ^4 k^2 / 4


]

=

− 1

σ^2


[

(x+ikσ^2 /2)^2 +σ^4 k^2 / 4


]

The integral offis now


g(k) =e−σ


(^2) k (^2) / 4


∫∞

−∞

dx′e−x


′ (^2) /σ 2


where x′=x+ikσ/ 2


The change of variables makes this a standard integral, Eq. (1.10), and the other factor, with the


exponential ofk^2 , comes outside the integral. The result is


g(k) =σ



πe−σ


(^2) k (^2) / 4


(15.7)


This has the curious result that the Fourier transform of a Gaussian is* a Gaussian.


15.2 Convolution Theorem
What is the Fourier transform of the product of two functions? It is a convolution of the individual


transforms. What that means will come out of the computation. Take two functionsf 1 andf 2 with


Fourier transformsg 1 andg 2.


∫∞

−∞

dxf 1 (x)f 2 (x)e−ikx=



dx



dk′


2 π


g 1 (k′)eik


′x

f 2 (x)e−ikx



  • Another function has this property: the hyperbolic secant. Look up the quantum mechanical
    harmonic oscillator solution for an infinite number of others.

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