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sponsibility for the violence that may be done to them by men on the basis of gender
difference, and that this responsibility is what generates thesubsequentdemand for its
veiling by them. This argument is interesting for several reasons. First, it indicates an
analytic misunderstanding, because the veil does not hide gender difference, it advertises
it. Second, the argument betrays an unfamiliarity with Islamic law, because the latter does
notattribute an absolute or innate responsibility to women for all violence done to them
by men—which isnotto say that men and women are always treated as equal subjects
before that law, or that the law never sanctions violence against women. But the veil as a
sign is at once less and more than the law. Third, the argument regards the headscarf
independent of context or use, so that it becomes part of a theological rhetoric applicable
equally to Afghan women under the Taliban and to French women living in France under
French law. It obscures the distinction between causes and excuses, and therefore muddies
the meaning of the veil as an ‘‘origin’’ or ‘‘justification’’ of violence. Finally, the argument
makes it difficult to see how Muslim youths in thebanlieuswho assault young Muslim
women for going about unveiled in public are dealt with by imposing a sartorial ban in
public schools in the name of Republican values.
I should stress again that my concern here is not with defending the right to veil. My
modest aim is to examine the argument that because veiling is a symbol of gender inequal-
ity and a cause of sexual violence against women it should be legally prohibited in public
schools. I am persuaded that various powerful affects underpin this demand and that
their presence facilitates the use of theological language in this debate.^69
Whatever the case may be, it is worth noting the distance of the Republican notion
of gender equality (sexual difference is always subordinate to legal sameness) from the
Pauline model of indistinction. There it is not that abstract equalitymustinevitably tri-
umph over difference, it is that difference does not matter because in Christ Jesus men
and women are one. It is not that they have the same power, that each has a vote of equal
value. (Paul even admonishes husbands and wives to take their proper placesin this world:
‘‘Wives, be in subjection to your husbands, as is fitting in the Lord. Husbands, love your
wives and be not bitter against them’’; Colossians, 3:18–19.) My point is not that Paul
makes his ‘‘reactionary’’ meaning explicit here—if indeed it was Paul who wrote Colossi-
ans. It is quite simply that his affirmation about being one in Christ is not a sociological
statement, for even the statement from Colossians does not contradict that oneness in
Christ, a oneness that refers to those redeemed by Christ’s sacrifice, those who have let
him enter them. ‘‘For the mind of the flesh is death; but the mind of the spirit is life and
peace,’’ says Paul, ‘‘Because the mind of the flesh is enmity against God.... And if Christ
is in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the spirit is life because of righteousness’’
(Romans 8:6–10). It is therefore in the universality of the spirit, in the fact that men and
women, as subjectsinthe Lord, can live in righteousness, that the inequalities of particular
bodies (dead because of sin) can be equalized—that is, brought equally to life and the
same life.


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