That there have been claims made against the Quran:
Why was it abrogated?
Before a detailed explanation one should return the question to them why is it found
in your scriptures?
Jew’s believe in the Old Testament and Christians the New Testament. Yet they do
not rely on it, instead they rely on the writing of Paul.
What is shocking is according to the Christians the rulings in the bible have all been
abrogated.
Despite : “ the commands of the Gospels must remain”
They the Christians completely disregard verses like this in the interest of exposing
Islam.
The Christians are supposed to believe in both the public area to live in. if they say
they do and live by the Bible, we should say to the gather all your priests as they
should be killed for not magnifying the ‘Sabbath”
Another ‘abrogation”
Is the abrogation of the pig that used to be impure now suddenly is pure again.
Clearly this is another example of the rule being changed.
These are clear indicators that the books were altered by man.
Jesus (pbuh) did himself confirm the continuation of this law of Moses(pbuh) till the
end of time. In Matthew 5:17-19 we read:
"Think not that I (Jesus) am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come
to destroy, but to fulfill. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot
or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Whosoever
therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he
shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach
[them], the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven."
This is confirmed in Luke 16:17:
"And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass, than one tittle of the law to fail." ..etc.
All of this was later abrogated by Paul with Galatians 3:13 "Christ hath redeemed us
from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us" and Hebrews 8:13 "In that he
saith, A new [covenant], he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and
waxeth old [is] ready to vanish away." and Romans 3:28 "Therefore we conclude
that a man is justi>ied by faith without the deeds of the law." And Romans 3:1 "What
advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit [is there] of circumcision?"