1000 Solved Problems in Modern Physics

(Grace) #1

214 3 Quantum Mechanics – II


=−


∂b

(

k
b^2 +k^2

)

=

2 kb
(b^2 +k^2 )^2
Therefore the integral in (4) is evaluated as
(
2 k
a 0

)/[(

1

a 02

)

+k^2

]

(5)

Using the result (5) in (4), puttingk=p/, and rearranging, we get

ψ(p)=

(

2


2

π

)(



a 0

)^52 /[

p^2 +

(



a 0

) 2 ]^2

or

|ψ(p)|^2 =

8

π^2

(/a 0 )^5
[p^2 +(/a 0 )^2 ]^4

(6)

3.75 (a)|ψ(p)|^2 =


8

π^2

(



a 0

) 5

. 4 πp^2


/[

p^2 +

(



a 0

) 2 ]^4

(1)

Maximize (1)
d
dp

|ψ(p)|^2 = 0

This givesPmost probable=/


3 a 0

(b)<p>=

∫∞

0

ψ∗ppψp. 4 πp^2 dp

=

(

32

π

)(



a 0

) 5 ∫∞

0

p^3 dp

/[

p^2 +

(



a 0

) 2 ]^4

The integralI 1 is easily evaluated by the change of variable
p=

(


a 0

)

tanθ. Then

I 1 =

(

1

8

)(

a 0


) 4 ∫π/ 2

0

sin^32 θdθ=

(

1

12

)(

a 0


) 4

Thus<p>= 3 π^8 a 0

3.76 By Problem 3.71, the probability that


P

(

r
a 0

)

= 1 −exp

(


2 r
a 0

)(

1 +

2 r
a 0

+

2 r^2
a 02

)

Putp

(

r
a 0

)

= 0 .5 and solve the above equation numerically (see Chap. 1). We
getr= 1. 337 a 0 , with an error of 2 parts in 10^5.
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