Jeremiah 21-36 A New Translation with Introduction and Commentary by (Anchor Yale Bible Commentaries)

(Marcin) #1
Speaking of Kings (21:1-23:8) 163


  1. Thus said Yahweh. The LXX omits, for which reason some commentators
    (Giesebrecht; Cornill; Weiser; Rudolph; Bright; Janzen 1973: 85; Holladay) take
    this messenger formula to be a later addition. Giesebrecht says the formula is
    superfluous after "Hear the word of Yahweh" immediately preceding (v 29).
    But the omission can be attributed to haplography (homoeoarcton: k ... k or
    whole-word: yhwh ... yhwh). The T, Aq, Symm, Theod, and Vg all have the
    formula.
    Write this man down childless. More apostrophe, with Yahweh now imagin-
    ing scribes at his side, ready to take dictation. The singular imperative of the
    LXX imagines only one scribe. Some have suggested that Jehoiachin is being
    entered childless in a census list (Neh 12:22-23; cf. Isa 4:3), but we noted
    above that Jehoiachin did have sons, some of whom could have been born in
    Jerusalem. The Hebrew 'arfrf is clear: it means "childless" (Gen 15:2; Lev
    20:20-21) and is rendered in the Vg as sterilem ("barren, sterile"). There is no
    reason to follow G. R. Driver (1937-38: 115), who thinks the real meaning of
    the Hebrew is "disgraced," i.e., stripped of honor (so NEB and REB). There is
    also little enthusiasm for the LXX's ekkerukton anthropon ("a man banished by
    public proclamation"), so most commentators stay with the MT. The LXX text
    is likely corrupt, translating as it does the next word, geber, with anthropon
    (pace BHS) and then omitting the rest of the phrase. What we have here is a
    bold metaphor meaning: "Jehoiachin may just as well be recorded as child-
    less, for he will have no heir to sit on the throne of David." In the end it mat-
    ters not whether he has one son, two sons, or five sons-in Jerusalem, in
    Babylon, or on the way to Babylon. Most of the modern Versions (but not the
    AV) get the basic meaning by translating a simile (i.e., with "as"), which the
    figure is not. Wessels (1989: 244) thinks that Jeremiah has overreached his
    judgment, i.e., the statement was hyperbole and consequently wrong. But the
    statement is not hyperbole; it is a bold metaphor that was fulfilled.
    a man who will not prosper in his days. Hebrew geber can mean simply
    "man," although here it doubtless has overtones of a man who is young, strong,
    and eminently able. The LXX lacks "(he) who will not prosper in his days,"
    probably, as was just mentioned, because of a corrupt text. Things have
    changed since Jeremiah lamented over wicked people prospering (12:1). Here
    the verb $1~ means prosper in the sense of "succeed" via a royal heir.
    Indeed there shall not prosper from his offspring a man to sit upon the throne
    of David and rule again in Judah. Taking the kf with Calvin as an emphatic
    "Indeed!" The same prophecy was given earlier to Jehoiakim (36:30). Mala-
    mat (1975: 138) is of the opinion that Jeremiah rejected the legitimacy of
    Jehoiachin, whom the false prophets were advocating in the last decade of
    Judah's existence, preferring Zedekiah instead, despite his drawbacks. And
    yet, while no son of Jehoiachin will reign in Judah, the Davidic line will sur-
    vive, as the oracles in 23:5-6 and 33:17-18 declare. One may also note that
    Matt 1:11-12 has Jehoiachin and his son Shealtiel in the messianic line. The
    present verse was also put to use in the Dead Sea community. The Qumran
    Temple Scroll (1 lQT 59:14-15) says concerning the king who disregards God's

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