Algebra 377and each of these is just the AM–GM inequality.
(Greek Team Selection Test for the Junior Balkan Mathematical Olympiad, 2005)
128.Denote the positive number 1−(a 1 +a 2 +···+an)byan+ 1. The inequality from
the statement becomes the more symmetric
a 1 a 2 ···anan+ 1
( 1 −a 1 )( 1 −a 2 )···( 1 −an)( 1 −an+ 1 )≤
1
nn+^1.
But from the AM–GM inequality,
1 −a 1 =a 2 +a 3 +···+an+ 1 ≥nn√
a 2 a 3 ···an+ 1 ,
1 −a 2 =a 1 +a 3 +···+an+ 1 ≥nn√
a 1 a 3 ···an+ 1 ,
···
1 −an+ 1 =a 1 +a 2 +···+an≥nn√
a 1 a 2 ···an.Multiplying thesen+1 inequalities yields
( 1 −a 1 )( 1 −a 2 )···( 1 −an+ 1 )≥nn+^1 a 1 a 2 ···an,and the conclusion follows.
(short list of the 43rd International Mathematical Olympiad, 2002)
129.Trick number 1: Use the fact that
1 =
n− 1 +xj
n− 1 +xj=(n− 1 )1
n− 1 +xj+
xj
n− 1 +xj,j= 1 , 2 ,...,n,to transform the inequality into
x 1
n− 1 +x 1+
x 2
n− 1 +x 2+···+
xn
n− 1 +xn≥ 1.
Trick number 2: Break this into theninequalities
xj
n− 1 +xj≥
x
1 −^1 n
j
x
1 −^1 n
1 +x1 −^1 n
2 +···+x1 −^1 n
n,j= 1 , 2 ,...,n.We are left withnsomewhat simpler inequalities, which can be rewritten as
x
1 −^1 n
1 +x1 −^1 n
2 +x1 −^1 n
j− 1 +x1 −^1 n
j+ 1 +···+x1 −^1 n
n ≥(n−^1 )x−^1 n
j.Trick number 3: Use the AM–GM inequality