22-Credit Risk Model Derivs Page 692 Wednesday, February 4, 2004 1:12 PM
692 The Mathematics of Financial Modeling and Investment ManagementIf we calculate the yield as before, we find that the spread to the risk-
free rate is 1.5 basis points. If the recovery is the asset value, then we do
need to follow equation (22.5) and the debt value isln200 – ln100 + (0.05 – 0.2^2 ) × 1
d 2 = --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------= 3.6157
0.2 1d 1 = 3.6157 + 0.2 = 3.8157Et()= 200 ×N(3.8157)– e –0.05 × 100 ×N(3.6157)
= 104.877DtT( , 1 )= 200 – 104.8777 = 95.1223The small difference in the two results is because the default probability
is really small (only 0.015%). When the default probability gets bigger,
the debt value difference will get larger.
The second bond is more complex to evaluate. It can be defaulted in
t= 1 when the first debt is defaulted or t= 2 when only itself is defaulted.
The retiring of the first debt can be viewed as the dividend of the stock.
Under the lognormal model described above, we can write the firm
value at the end of the two-year period as( , 2 )= [AtT(r–σ^2 ⁄ 2 )(T 1 – t)+ σWT 1
AtT ( , 1 )– K 1 ]e()= At(r–σ^2 ⁄ 2 )(T 2 – t)+σWT 2
()e()- K 1 e
(r–σ^2 ⁄ 2 )(T 1 – t)+ σWT() 1where K 1 is the face value of the 1-year debt andWt()= ∫t 0 d Wu()du
The default probability of the second debt is the sum of the first year
default probability and the second year default probability as follows:Pr[AT( 1 ) <K 1 ]+Pr[A(T 1 ) >K 1 and (AT( 2 ) <K 2 ) ]