LWBK1006-14 LWW-Govindan-Review November 24, 2011 11:28
152 DeVita, Hellman, and Rosenberg’s CANCER: Principles and Practice of Oncology Review
Question 14.8. Which of the following statements regarding prophylactic oophorectomy
is true?
A. Prophylactic bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (BSO) is the most
effective therapy to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer in women with
BRCA1orBRCA2gene mutation.
B. BSO inBRCA1orBRCA2gene mutation carriers is indicated at age
30.
C. BSO inBRCA1orBRCA2gene mutation carriers has no effect on
the risk of developing breast cancer.
D. All the above.
Question 14.9. Jennifer is a 38-year-old woman who was diagnosed with stage IIA duc-
tal carcinoma at 30 years of age. She undergoes direct genetic testing of
theBRCA1andBRCA2genes and is found to have aBRCA2gene vari-
ant. Specifically the variant is Q713L (2366A>T), which results in the
substitution of leucine for glutamine at amino acid 713 of the BRCA2
protein. The functional significance is unknown. Jennifer’s sister, Angela,
is 40 years of age and has no personal history of cancer. Which is the
most appropriate genetic testing approach for Angela?
A. Genetic testing is recommended for Angela because it will clarify her
breast cancer risk.
B. Genetic testing is not recommended for Angela because it will not
clarify her breast cancer risk.
C. Genetic testing is recommended for Angela because it will help clarify
Jennifer’s genetic test results.
D. A and C.
Question 14.10. Which of the following statements regarding BRCA is NOT TRUE?
A. The majority ofBRCA2 gene mutation carriers who develop breast
cancer have estrogen-receptor positive tumors.
B. BRCA1andBRCA2gene mutation carriers are at increased risk for
developing second contralateral or ipsilateral breast tumors.
C. Treatment with tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of contralateral
breast cancer in women withBRCA2gene mutations.
D. Prophylactic bilateral mastectomy decreases the risk of breast cancer
in more than 90% of high-risk women withBRCA1orBRCA2gene
mutation.