LWBK1006-22 LWW-Govindan-Review December 12, 2011 19:7
298 DeVita, Hellman, and Rosenberg’s CANCER: Principles and Practice of Oncology Review
Question 22.5. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the epidemiology
and risk factors for germ cell malignancies?
A. Orchiopexy eliminates the risk of developing testicular cancer in
patients with cryptorchidism.
B. Contralateral primaries arise in 1% to 2% of patients.
C. Germ cell tumors are the most common malignancy seen in men
between the ages of 15 and 34.
D. HIV infection is a risk factor for developing germ cell tumors.
Question 22.6. Which of the following characterizes a pathological stage T3 testicular
germ cell tumor?
A. Invasion of the tunica vaginalis
B. Invasion of the tunica albuginea
C. Invasion of the spermatic cord
D. None of the above
Question 22.7. Which of the following is NOT recommended after orchiectomy for
patients with stage I seminoma?
A. Radiation
B. Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND)
C. Observation
D. None of the above
Question 22.8. Which of the following are TRUE regarding patients with stage I semi-
noma?
A. The relapse rate without radiation therapy is between 15% and 20%.
B. The median time to relapse is 20 months.
C. Approximately 10% of relapses occur 5 years after orchiectomy.
D. All the above.
Question 22.9. Which of the following is a reasonable treatment option after orchiectomy
for patients with stage IA nonseminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCTs)?
A. Observation
B. Radiation
C. Full bilateral RPLND with suprahilar dissection
D. All the above
Question 22.10. Which of the following is an acceptable treatment regimen for a patient
with good risk advanced germ cell tumor?
A. Three cycles of bleomycin, etoposide, and carboplatin
B. Three cycles of bleomycin, etoposide, and cisplatin (BEP)
C. Three cycles of etoposide and cisplatin (EP)
D. All of the above