v ,�,.�� �
·.:·: •• J'/OA
.
.
.
.....
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.. .... �.�:,f
9.3 DIFFERENTIATION AND INTEGRATION 333
y = f( x) (fantasy)
.
- ..
.•
- •
... y=x
..
...
..
�---y = f(x) (reality)
..... �
The picture gives us a vague idea. Since the derivative is at most k in absolute value,
and since k < 1, the graph of y = f (x) to the right of the y-axis will be trapped within
the dotted-line "cone," and will eventually intersect the graph of y = x. The mean
value theorem lets us prove this in a satisfying way. Suppose that for all x 2: 0, we
have f(x) =1= x. Then (IVT) we must have f(x) > x. Pick b > 0 (think large). By the
mean value theorem, there is a u E (O,b) such that
Since f(b) > b, we have
f'( )=
f(b)-f(O)
=
f(b)-v
u.
b-O b
b-v V
f'(u) > -
b-
= 1 -b'
Since b can be arbitrarily large, we can arrange things so that the minimum value of
f' (u) becomes arbitrarily close to 1. But this contradicts If'(u) 1 � k < 1. Thus f(x)
must equal x for some x > O.
If f(O) < 0, the argument is similar (draw the "cone" to the left of the y-axis, etc.)_
The satisfying thing about this argument was the role that the mean value theorem
played in guaranteeing exactly the right derivative values to get the desired contradic
tion.
The next example is a rather tricky problem that uses Rolle's theorem infinitely
many times.
Example 9.3.5 (Putnam 19 92) Let f be an infinitely differentiable real-valued func
tion defined on the real numbers. If
n =1,2,3, ... ,